Test Your Knowledge with These FREE FNP Practice Questions!

Take a Look into the SMNP Primary Care Qbank!

Designed specifically for FNP and AGPCNP students, our Primary Care Nursing Qbank includes 1,800 practice questions that you can access anytime, anywhere!

The Qbank includes:

🌟 1,000 questions with detailed explanations
🌟 800 questions in pre-created practice exams
🌟 Track your performance with advanced analytics
🌟  A free mobile app for on-the-go studying
🌟 Customize your practice sets
🌟 Exam-like experience

Plus, you’ll get access to Blue, the first-ever AI tutor for NP prep!

FNP Practice Questions With Detailed Explanations

Looking for the correct answers to the quiz you just finished? Look no further! (

Question #1

A 36-year-old patient presents to the clinic with reports of nausea and right-sided abdominal pain. To evaluate for appendicitis, the nurse practitioner flexes the patient’s right hip and knee and then slowly rotates the patient’s right leg internally. Which sign did the nurse practitioner elicit?

A) Blumberg sign

B) Obturator sign

C) Psoas sign

D) Rovsing sign 

Correct answer: B

The obturator sign (B) is elicited by flexing the right hip and knee and then rotating internally, as described in the vignette. If that maneuver causes pain in the right lower quadrant, it is suggestive for appendicitis. Blumberg sign (A) is the specific name for rebound tenderness, which occurs when there is increased pain in the abdomen upon release of pressure from deep palpation. Psoas sign (C) is conducted by having the patient lie supine and then having them raise their right leg up against resistance. Pain in the right lower quadrant indicates irritation of the iliopsoas muscle and is suggestive of appendicitis. Rovsing sign (D) indicates peritoneal irritation or inflammation from appendicitis and is considered positive when palpation in the left lower quadrant causes pain in the right lower quadrant. 

Question #2

A 19-year-old patient is diagnosed with streptococcal pharyngitis. The patient reports an allergy to amoxicillin that results in hives. What is the most appropriate antibiotic to prescribe for this patient?

A) Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin)

B) Azithromycin (Zithromax)

C) Cephalexin (Keflex) 

D) Doxycycline (Vibramycin)

Correct answer: B

Azithromycin (Zithromax) (B) is the most appropriate antibiotic to prescribe. The patient in this vignette has a Type I IgE–mediated, immediate-type hypersensitivity reaction to amoxicillin. Therefore, other penicillins [e.g., amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) (A)] should be avoided. Additionally, given the small but possible chance of cross-sensitivity, cephalosporins [e.g., cephalexin (Keflex) (C)] should also be avoided in patients with severe allergies to penicillins due to the similarities between beta-lactam antibiotics. Doxycycline (Vibramycin) (D) does not provide appropriate antimicrobial coverage for streptococcal pharyngitis. 

Question #3

A 42-year-old patient presents to the urgent care clinic with reports of left knee pain and swelling after falling during a flag football game an hour ago. The nurse practitioner notes a positive Lachman test. What structure in the knee is most likely injured?

A) Anterior cruciate ligament

B) Lateral meniscus 

C) Lateral collateral ligament 

D) Patellar tendon

Correct answer: A

The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) (A) is commonly injured with sudden pivots or twisting motions and tends to swell quickly after the injury. The Lachman test is most specific for ACL injuries. Meniscal injuries [e.g., lateral meniscus (B)] tend to have delayed swelling and can be assessed using the McMurrary test. Lateral collateral ligament (C) and patellar tendon (D) injuries are not associated with a positive Lachman test. 

Question #4

The nurse practitioner counsels a 27-year-old patient on smoking cessation during an annual visit. What level of prevention has the nurse practitioner performed?

A) Primary

B) Quaternary

C) Secondary

D) Tertiary

Correct answer: A

Explanation: Smoking cessation is an example of primary prevention (A). Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs (e.g., lung cancer, COPD). Secondary prevention (C) aims to screen for disease to allow for early detection and treatment. Tertiary prevention (D) includes efforts to manage diseases to maximize current health and minimize complications. Quaternary prevention (B) is the concept of reducing medical harm, including unnecessary treatments. 

Question #5

The nurse practitioner is assessing a 3-day old newborn in the clinic for the first visit after being discharged from the nursery and notes jaundice to the infant’s chest and face. Which of the following findings suggests a pathological cause for the jaundice?

A) Difficulty with breastfeeding

B) Jaundice starting around days 2–3 of life

C) Jaundice starting within 24 hours of life

D) Total bilirubin level of 10 mg/dL at 48 hours of life

Correct answer: C

Explanation: Pathological jaundice is elevated bilirubin levels caused by an underlying condition, such as liver disease, and commonly presents with jaundice that occurs within the first 24 hours of life (C). Physiological jaundice is very common in newborns and typically presents with jaundice starting around days 2–3 of life (B) and gradually resolves after about two weeks. While difficulties with breastfeeding (A) may contribute to a delay in the resolution of jaundice, it is not necessarily a sign of a pathological cause. A total bilirubin level of 10 mg/dL at 48 hours of life (D) would not be concerning for a sign of pathological jaundice. 

Further Reading

Looking for more (free!) content to help you prep for FNP boards? Check out these other posts on the SMNP Reviews blog, written by real-deal NPs!

• How to Study for Nurse Practitioner Boards
• How to Choose the Perfect NP Board Review Option for You
• 13 Do’s & Don’ts for Your NP Board Prep